Multiple Choice Question and Answer for CTET Paper 1 Model Paper 1 (Marks : 150.00)
Section :
Child Development and Pedagogy
( Marks :
30.00)
Ques
1.
A major strength of ecological theory is its framework for explaining
1.
Environmental influences on development.
2.
Biological influences on development.
3.
Cognitive development.
4.
Affective processes in development.
Ques
2.
Success in developing values is mainly dependent upon
1.
government
2.
Society
3.
family
4.
teacher
Ques
3.
In order to develop the spirit of labour in students
1.
The teacher himself should indulge in labour
2.
The teacher should deliver lectures on the importance of labour
3.
Students should be given opportunities to do labour from time to time
4.
Students should be given examples of laboring people
Ques
4.
The cardinal principles of learner centered education are_____.
1.
Learning by doing
2.
Learning by living
3.
Both
4.
None of these
Ques
5.
Which of the following is not necessary for ensuring the success of a programme of 'Inclusive Education' in a school?
1.
Requisite infrastructure
2.
Adequate finances
3.
All the teachers of the school should be special resource person
4.
Motivated administrators and teachers
Ques
6.
In which of the following stages the child looks self-centered?
1.
Infancy
2.
Early childhood
3.
Adolescence
4.
Adulthood
Ques
7.
A Teacher of high caste is biased with the low caste students. What advice you would like to give to that teacher?
1.
Rebuke him for narrow thinking
2.
His attitude is all right
3.
Threat him against the constitutional provisions
4.
He should not behave against the national spirit and need of the hour
Ques
8.
A student in your class has consistently been performing poorly in one subject. What should you do?
1.
Tell the student to work harder
2.
Arrange for a diagnostic test to find out what the difficulty is
3.
Arrange for remedial classes in that subject
4.
Talk to the parents
Ques
9.
The best place of social development for a 12 years old child is___.
1.
Neighborhood
2.
Family
3.
Playground
4.
School
Ques
10.
In order to develop the spirit of labour in students:
1.
The teacher himself should indulge in labour
2.
The teacher should deliver lectures on the importance of labour
3.
Students should be given opportunities to do labour from time to time
4.
Students should be given examples of laboring people
Ques
11.
The primary duty of a teacher is to be responsible to his/her:
1.
family
2.
students
3.
society
4.
nation
Ques
12.
If any girl child does not corner to school regularly you will
1.
no bother
2.
struck off her name
3.
complain to the Principal
4.
meet the parents and en-courage them
Ques
13.
Which would be the best theme to start with in a nursery class?
1.
My best friend
2.
My neighbourhood
3.
My school
4.
My family
Ques
14.
NavodayaSchools have been established to:
1.
increase number of school in rural areas
2.
provide good education in rural areas
3.
complete‘SarvaShikshaAbhiyan’
4.
check wastage of education in rural areas
Ques
15.
Good reading aims at developing
1.
understanding
2.
pronunciation
3.
sensitivity
4.
increasing factual knowledge
Ques
16.
A girl student shows talent and interest in science but her parents are pushing her to take humanities stream. What advice would you suggest to the girl?
1.
To listen to her parents
2.
To be focused on her favorite subjects
3.
Talk to her parents and point out her talent
4.
Encourage her to try for scholarships; so that she can study the subject of her interest
Ques
17.
Which would be the most effective method of dealing with a Low-achieving child?
1.
Detain the child in the same class for another year
2.
Put him/her Lower-class for another year
3.
Mark his/her answers in examinations generously
4.
Arrange for extensive coaching
Ques
18.
The key difference between evolutionary and cultural change is that evolutionary change alters__________ whereas cultural change alters____________.
1.
Reproduction; environment
2.
Heredity; environment
3.
Environment; behavior
4.
Development; learning
Ques
19.
____ is the process of determining the context to which an objective is achieved or the qualities envisaged.
1.
Measurement
2.
Evaluation
3.
Both (a) and (b)
4.
None of these
Ques
20.
IQ scores are generally ________ correlated with academic performance.
1.
Least
2.
Perfectly
3.
Highly
4.
Moderately
Ques
21.
Environmental education should be taught in schools because:
1.
it will affect environmental pollution
2.
it is important part of life
3.
it will provide job to teachers
4.
we cannot escape from environment
Ques
22.
All of the following advanced principles of child development that are closely allied to the stimulus response learning theory, except:
1.
Pavilov
2.
J.B.Waston
3.
Hull
4.
Gesell
Ques
23.
If student is too shy to participate in the class, you will
1.
Not ask questions from him
2.
Ask only those questions from him whose answers can be given by him
3.
Not ask those questions from him whose answers are beyond his means and due to which, he may become objects of ridicule in the class
4.
Ask questions from him only when he is keen to answer them
Ques
24.
The term „identical elements‟ is closely associated with:
1.
Group instruction
2.
Transfer of learning
3.
Jealousy between twins
4.
Similar test questions
Ques
25.
The current movement of behavior modification, wherein tokens are awarded for correct responses, is
1.
Herbart‟s Five Steps
2.
Lock‟s Tabula rasa
3.
Thorndike's Law of Effect
4.
Thorndike's Law of Exercise
Ques
26.
How many stages of cognitive development recommended by Piaget?
1.
Seven stages
2.
Six stages
3.
Four Stages
4.
Two Stages
Ques
27.
_____ Is the ratio of mental age to the chronological age multiplied by 100.
1.
Emotional quotient
2.
Intelligence quotient
3.
Both
4.
None of these
Ques
28.
Performance of a student can be evaluated in the best possible manner through
1.
Weekly tests
2.
Annual Examinations
3.
Anon-going overall assessment throughout the year
4.
Monthly tests
Ques
29.
Gifted students are
1.
non-assertive of their needs
2.
independent in their judgments
3.
independent of teachers
4.
introvert in nature
Ques
30.
The process whereby the genetic factors limit an individual's responsiveness to the environment is known as
1.
Canalization.
2.
Discontinuity.
3.
Differentiation.
4.
Range of reaction.
Answers are:
Ques
1:
1
Ques
2:
4
Ques
3:
4
Ques
4:
3
Ques
5:
3
Ques
6:
2
Ques
7:
4
Ques
8:
2
Ques
9:
1
Ques
10:
3
Ques
11:
2
Ques
12:
4
Ques
13:
4
Ques
14:
2
Ques
15:
1
Ques
16:
4
Ques
17:
2
Ques
18:
2
Ques
19:
2
Ques
20:
3
Ques
21:
2
Ques
22:
4
Ques
23:
4
Ques
24:
2
Ques
25:
4
Ques
26:
3
Ques
27:
2
Ques
28:
3
Ques
29:
2
Ques
30:
4
Section :
Language I (Hindi)
( Marks :
30.00)
Ques
1.
तुलसीदास ने कहा है कि ‘विनाश काल में मनुष्य की बुद्धि भ्रष्ट हो जाती हैं।’
1.
साधारण वाक्य
2.
सरल वाक्य
3.
संयुक्त वाक्य
4.
मिश्र वाक्य
1.
उत्यापण
2.
रोपण
3.
आरोपण
4.
स्थापन
Ques
3.
निम्नलिखित में से सही शब्द-शुद्धि का चुनाव कीजिए।
1.
चिकित्सक
2.
चकित्सक
3.
चिकत्सिक
4.
चकित्सिक
1.
दीर्घ संधि
2.
गुण संधि
3.
विसर्ग संधि
4.
वृद्धि संधि
Ques
5.
निम्नलिखित में से सही शब्द-शुद्धि का चुनाव कीजिए।
1.
निंदषन
2.
निदर्षन
3.
निर्दषन
4.
निदषर्न
1.
रोगी
2.
रोग
3.
स्वस्थ
4.
अस्वस्थता
1.
कर्मधारय
2.
द्विगु
3.
द्वन्द्व
4.
तत्पुरूष
1.
बहुउद्देषीय
2.
विदेषी
3.
स्वदेषी
4.
सर्वदेषीय
Ques
9.
नीचे दिए गए विकल्पों में से "क्षेपक" शब्द का सही तात्पर्य चयन कीजिए-
1.
दूसरों को क्षमा करने वाला
2.
शत्रु पर घातक वार करने वाला
3.
किस ग्रंथ में अन्य व्यक्ति द्वारा जोडा गया भाग
4.
किसी व्यक्ति द्वारा छोडे गए कार्य को पूरा करने वाला
Ques
10.
जल/समुद्र में लगने वाली आग।
1.
दावानल
2.
जल विद्युत
3.
जल प्रपात
4.
बडवाग्नि
1.
सुर
2.
पुत्र
3.
शत्रु
4.
गणेष
Ques
12.
"वह पढाई कर चुका है," वाक्य में कौन-सी क्रिया है ?
1.
सहायक
2.
पूर्वकालिक
3.
नामबोधक
4.
संयुक्त
Ques
13.
किस शब्द में "उप" उपसर्ग का प्रयोग नहीं हुआ है?
1.
उपन्यास
2.
उद्गम
3.
उपमंत्री
4.
उपकार
Ques
14.
"स्पृष्य" शब्द में पूर्व कौनसा उपसर्ग जोडें कि विपरीतार्थक शब्द बन जाए ?
1.
अव्ययीभाव
2.
तत्पुरूष
3.
द्विगु
4.
बहुब्रीहि
1.
बहुत बुद्धिमान
2.
बहुत चतुर
3.
अत्यन्त धूर्त
4.
अत्यन्त मूर्ख
1.
लिखित
2.
कथित
3.
पठित
4.
अलिखित
Ques
18.
निम्नलिखित में से सही शब्द-शुद्धि का चुनाव कीजिए।
1.
जल्दि
2.
जल्दी
3.
जलदि
4.
ज्लदी
Ques
19.
सत्कार" में उपसर्ग है ?
1.
उन्मुख
2.
विमुख
3.
प्रमुख
4.
अधिमुख
1.
सहचर
2.
अरि
3.
मनुज
4.
सखा
Ques
22.
निम्नलिखित में से सही शब्द-शुद्धि का चुनाव कीजिए।
1.
त्रिदोष
2.
तिरदोष
3.
त्रिदोष
4.
नृदोष
Ques
23.
निम्नलिखित में से सही शब्द-शुद्धि का चुनाव कीजिए।
1.
परिणति
2.
परीणीत
3.
परणिति
4.
परीणीत
Ques
24.
वह स्त्री जिसकी कोई संतान न हो।
1.
कुलटा
2.
बांझ
3.
अप्रसूता
4.
विधवा
Ques
25.
"आकाश" में उपसर्ग है
1.
आ
2.
अ
3.
अक्
4.
इनमें से कोई नहीं
Instruction : आपको किसी महत्वपूर्ण परीक्षा की तैयारी में क्या कठिनाई हो रही है? क्या ऐसा करने में समय की कमी महसूस हो रही है? अगर आपका जावाब ‘हाँ’ है, तो आपको समय प्रबंधन सीखने की जरूरत है | समय प्रबंधन किसी भी परीक्षा की तैयारी का सबसे महत्वपूर्ण पहलू है | बहुत से परीक्षार्थी ऐसे हैं, जो परीक्षाओं की तैयारी देर से और बेतरतीब ढंग से शुरू करते हैं, जिससे उन्हें समयाभाव सबसे बड़े शत्रु की तरह दिखने लगता है | बिना समय प्रबंधन के उस अनुपात में फायदा नहीं हो पाटा, जिस अनुपात में आप मेहनत करते हैं | वास्तव में समय की गति को या उसके स्वभाव को मैनेज नहीं किया जा सकता, क्योंकि न तो इसे धीमा किया जा सकता है और न ही रोका जा सकता है | आप स्वयं को मैनेज करते हुए सिर्फ इसका सही उपयोग कर सकते है | वास्तविकता यही है | सबसे पहले आप यह निर्धारित करें की आपका वर्तमान समय कैसे व्यतीत हो रहा है | आप पिछले एक सप्ताह के अपने कार्यकलाप को एक पेपर पर लिखकर देखिये कि आपने टाईमटेबल का कितना और कैसा अनुसरण किया है | पूरे सप्ताह में कितने घंटे सेल्फ-स्टडी की है और आपका निर्धारित सिलेबस का कितना हिस्सा नहीं हो पाया है | एक बार पूरा विश्लेषण करने के बाद आप स्वयं को समय के हिसाब से बदलना शुरू कर सकते हैं | समय बचाने के लिए किसी विशेषज्ञ की टिप्स काम आ सकती है परन्तु सबसे अधिक प्रभाव आपके निश्चय, समर्पण और समय नियोजन का रहेगा | समय प्रबंधन आपके आत्मविश्वास को बढ़ाएगा और यह सफलता की दिशा में निर्णायक होगा(From Ques 26 to Ques 30)
Ques
26.
समय प्रबंधन सीखने की जरूरत कब है?
1.
जब अवसर खो देने की संभावना हो
2.
जब कोई परीक्षा देनी हो
3.
जब अच्चा व्यवसाय चुनना हो
4.
जब कुछ करने के लिए समय कम पड़े
Ques
27.
समय के बारे में सच है की उसे
1.
रोका जा सकता है
2.
धीमा किया जा सकता है
3.
लौटाया जा सकता है
4.
मैनेज नहीं किया जा सकता है
Ques
28.
समय का आभाव उन्हें शत्रु जैसा लगता है, जो
1.
परीक्षाओं को महत्वपूर्ण नहीं मानते
2.
परीक्षाओं की तैयारी गंभीरता से करते हैं
3.
परीक्षाओं की तैयारी बेतरतीब ढंग से करते हैं
4.
परीक्षाओं की तैयारी करना ही नहीं चाहते
Ques
29.
‘सेल्फ-स्टडी’ शब्द है
1.
देशज
2.
तत्सम
3.
तदभव
4.
आगत
Ques
30.
‘महत्वपूर्ण’ पद का समास-विग्रह होगा
1.
महत्व से पूर्ण
2.
महत्व और पूर्ण
3.
महत्व में पूर्ण
4.
महत्व के लिए पूर्ण
Answers are:
Ques
1:
4
Ques
2:
2
Ques
3:
1
Ques
4:
2
Ques
5:
2
Ques
6:
3
Ques
7:
3
Ques
8:
1
Ques
9:
3
Ques
10:
4
Ques
11:
4
Ques
12:
4
Ques
13:
2
Ques
14:
3
Ques
15:
4
Ques
16:
1
Ques
17:
1
Ques
18:
2
Ques
19:
2
Ques
20:
2
Ques
21:
2
Ques
22:
3
Ques
23:
1
Ques
24:
2
Ques
25:
1
Ques
26:
4
Ques
27:
4
Ques
28:
3
Ques
29:
4
Ques
30:
1
Section :
Language II (English)
( Marks :
30.00)
1.
Discerning
2.
Doomed
3.
Fortunate
4.
Imitative
1.
friendly
2.
negative
3.
positive
4.
inimical
1.
Tranquility
2.
Peace
3.
Chaos
4.
Quiet
1.
Unpleasant
2.
Tolerable
3.
Acceptable
4.
Undefeated
1.
Ride
2.
Desire
3.
Roam
4.
Treat
Ques
6.
Traditional medicine has_________________in areas like chronic and degenerative diseases where modern medicine is yet to
1.
market, challenge
2.
relevance, develop
3.
experimented, success
4.
flourished, sell
Ques
7.
As a____________of systematic inadequacies#@# India as a nuclear-weapons state is yet to resolve the____________of organising its defence forces.
1.
consequence, dilemmas
2.
flaw, dispute
3.
standpoint, chaos
4.
crux, essence
Ques
8.
There have been other committees which had_____________these problems and had made quite practical__________
1.
scrutinised, institution
2.
ventured, impact
3.
examined, proposals
4.
geared, solutions
Ques
9.
Deepavali should not be an___________where________and concern go up in smoke.
1.
area, care
2.
avenue, rituals
3.
occasion, caution
4.
auspices, peril
Ques
10.
We should________________our traditional ways to utilise the knowledge of medicine to plug the_________in modern healthcare.
1.
tackle, unawareness
2.
implement, efficiency
3.
forward, research
4.
evolve, loopholes
Ques
11.
A. Perhaps this will take a long time as it is very difficult to get together equals and to decide who is primus inter pares.
B. In this#@# China and India have to play major roles#@# not to mention Japan and the ASEAN.
C. But as a first step#@# we can have a cooperative community structure embracing certain parts of China adjacent to India#@# north Myanmar#@# Bangladesh and the Seven sisters of the Northeast.
D. In the coming years#@# India should pave the way for an Asian Common Market like its European counterpart.
1.
DBAC
2.
BCAD
3.
CABD
4.
ACDB
Ques
12.
A. But it has always been the other way round for Indian participants#@# who either lost their cool or are subjected to a sudden illness.
B. Besides all these shortcomings#@# what is glaringly missing is the genuine government efforts.
C. The Government of India should concentrate more on developing the necessary infrastructure for Indian sportspersons to acquire skills to compete in international events.
D. It is important that any sports participant in big events like Olympics should have a poised mind besides being physically fit at least during the days of his or her jstay in the sports venue.
1.
BCAD
2.
CDBA
3.
ACDB
4.
DABC
1.
Something is better than nothing
2.
To look disappointed for something
3.
To take short-cuts
4.
To sniff something wrong
Ques
14.
How can any cultural heritage remain intelligible when handed down to future generations without attention to its medium?
1.
Sentenced
2.
Passed over
3.
Passed on
4.
Given by hand
Ques
15.
A storm in a tea-cup
1.
To see signs of plague epidemic
2.
To get back to previous state without results
3.
To hide oneself
4.
Worried for frivolous things
Ques
16.
Find the correctly spelt word.
1.
Vermilion
2.
Verrmilion
3.
Vermmilion
4.
Veromilion
Ques
17.
The Bangladesh freedom fighters were no match militarily for the Pakistan army.
1.
Inferior
2.
Superior
3.
Allies
4.
Great
Ques
18.
Find the correctly spelt word.
1.
Ignorance
2.
Ignorence
3.
Ignorince
4.
Ignornce
Ques
19.
Find the correctly spelt word.
1.
Heemoglobin
2.
Haemoglobin
3.
Haemoglubin
4.
Haimoglobin
Ques
20.
The new opportunities for Indian IT will _______ retraining of hundreds of thousands of engineers and establishment of new consulting practices.
I. Entail
II. Involve
III. Necessitate
1.
Only I
2.
Only III
3.
Only I and II
4.
Only II and III
Instruction : Following the end of the Second World War, the United Kingdom enjoyed a long period without a major recession (from 1945 to 1973) and a rapid growth in prosperity in the 1950s and 1960s. According to the OECD, the annual rate of growth (percentage change) between 1960 and 1973 averaged 2.9%, although this figure was far behind the rates of other European countries such as France, West Germany and Italy.
However, following the 1973 oil crisis and the 1973-1974 stock market crash, the British economy fell into recession and the government of Edward Heath was ousted by the Labour Party under Harold Wilson. Wilson formed a minority government on 4 March 1974 after the General Election on 28th February ended in a hung parliament. Wilson subsequently secured a three seats majority in a second election in October that year.
The UK recorded weaker growth than many other European nations in the 1970s; even after the early 1970s recession ended, the economy was still blighted by rising unemployment and double-digit inflation.
In 1976, the UK was forced to request a loan of £2.3 billion from the International Monetary Fund. The then Chancellor of the Exchequer Denis Healey was required to implement public spending cuts and other economic reforms in order to secure the loan. Following the Winter of Discontent, the government of James Callaghan lost a vote of no confidence. This triggered the May 1979 General Election which resulted in Margaret Thatcher's Conservative Party forming a new government.
A new period of neo-liberal economy began in 1979 with the election of Margaret Thatcher who won the General Election on 3rd May that year to return the Conservative Party to government after five years of Labour government.
During the 1980s most state-owned enterprises were privatised, taxes cut and markets deregulated. GDP fell 5.9 % initially but growth subsequently returned and rose to 5% at its peak in 1988, one of the highest rates of any European nation.
The UK economy had been one of the strongest economies in terms of inflation, interest rates and unemployment, all of which remained relatively low until the 2008-09 recession. Unemployment has since reached a peak of just under 2.5 million (7.8 %), the highest level since the early 1990s, although still far lower than some other European nations. However, interest rates have reduced to 0.5 % pa. During August 2008 the IMF warned that the UK economic outlook had worsened due to a twin shock : financial turmoil and rising commodity prices. Both developments harm the UK more than most developed countries, as the UK obtains revenue from exporting financial services while recording deficits in finished goods and commodities, including food. In 2007, the UK had the world’s third largest current account deficit, due mainly to a large deficit in manufactured goods. During May 2008, the IMF advised the UK government to broaden the scope of fiscal policy to promote external balance. Although the UK’s “labour productivity per person employed” has been progressing well over the last two decades and has overtaken productivity in Germany, it still lags around 20% behind France, where workers have a 35-hour working week. The UK’s “labour productivity per hour worked” is currently on a par with the average for the “old” EU (15 countries). In 2010, the United Kingdom ranked 26th on the Human Development Index.
The UK entered a recession in Q2 of 2008, according to the Office for National Statistics and exited it in Q4 of 2009. The subsequently revised ONS figures show that the UK suffered six consecutive quarters of negative growth, making it the longest recession since records began. As at the end of Q4 2009, revised statistics from the Office for National Statistics demonstrate that the UK economy shrank by 7.2% from peak to trough. The Blue Book 2013 confirms that UK growth in Q2 of 2013 was 0.7%, and that the volume of output of GDP remains 3.2% below its pre-recession peak. The UK economy’s recovery has thus been more lacklustre than previously thought. Furthermore, The Blue Book 2013 demonstrates that the UK experienced a deeper initial downturn than all of the G7 economies save for Japan, and has experienced a slower recovery than all but Italy.
A report released by the Office of National Statistics on 14 May 2013 revealed that over the six-year period between 2005 and 2011, the UK dropped from 5th place to 12th place in terms of household income on an international scale—the drop was partially attributed to the devaluation of sterling over this time frame. However, the report also concluded that, during this period, inflation was relatively less volatile, the UK labour market was more resilient in comparison to other recessions, and household spending and wealth in the UK remained relatively strong in comparison to other OECD countries. According to a report by Moody’s Corporation, Britain’s debt-to-GDP ratio continues to increase in 2013 and is expected to reach 93% at the end of the year. The UK has lost its triple-A credit rating on the basis of poor economic outlook. 2013 economic growth has surprised many economists, ministers and the OBR in the 2013 budget’s projected annual growth of just 0.6%. In 2013 Q1 the economy grew by 0.4%, in Q2 the economy grew by 0.7% and in Q3 the economy is predicted to have grown at 0.8%.(From Ques 21 to Ques 30)
Ques
21.
A new period of new-liberal economy began in United Kingdom with the election of Margaret Thatcher after five years of Labour government. Margaret Thatcher came to power in
1.
1980
2.
1976
3.
1979
4.
1982
Ques
22.
According to the OECD, the annual rate of growth of United Kingdom’s economy between 1960 and 1973 averaged
1.
2.90%
2.
2.34%
3.
2.87%
4.
5.90%
Ques
23.
During August 2008, International Monetary Fund warned that the United Kingdom economic outlook had worsened due to a twin shock. What were the twin shocks ?
1.
Financial turmoil and decreasing commodity prices
2.
Financial turmoil and rising commodity prices
3.
Increasing exports and decreasing imports
4.
Low industrial growth and increasing imports
Ques
24.
According to a report by Moody’s, Britain’s debt-to-GDP ratio is expected to reach ________ at the end of 2013.
1.
90 per cent
2.
80 per cent
3.
87.3 per cent
4.
93 per cent
Ques
25.
A report of Office of National Statistics revealed that between 2005 and 2011, the UK dropped from 5th place to 12th place in terms of
1.
exports on an international scale
2.
imports on an international scale
3.
household income on an international scale
4.
agricultural productivity
Ques
26.
In 2007, the United Kingdom had the world’s third largest current account deficit due mainly to large deficit in
1.
manufactured goods
2.
high inflation
3.
agricultural produces
4.
exports
Ques
27.
Which is MOST SIMILAR in meaning as : Broaden
1.
narrow
2.
widen
3.
scatter
4.
brittle
Ques
28.
Which is MOST SIMILAR in meaning as : On a par
1.
up to a scratch
2.
of same value
3.
equal to
4.
in contrast
Ques
29.
Which is MOST OPPOSITE in meaning as : Volatile
1.
stable
2.
unstable
3.
sincere
4.
voracious
Ques
30.
Which is MOST OPPOSITE in meaning as : Reveal
1.
bring out
2.
concentrate
3.
concede
4.
conceal
Answers are:
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1:
3
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2:
1
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3:
3
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4:
1
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5:
3
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2
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7:
1
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3
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3
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4
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1
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4
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3
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3
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4
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1
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17:
1
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18:
1
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19:
2
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20:
5
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21:
3
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22:
1
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23:
2
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24:
4
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25:
3
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26:
1
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2
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28:
2
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29:
1
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30:
4
Section :
Mathematics
( Marks :
30.00)
Ques
1.
The cost price of an article is 80% of its marked price for sale. How much per cent does the tradesman gain after allowing a discount of 12%?
Ques
2.
An error 2% in excess is made while measuring the side of a square. The percentage of error in the calculated area of the square is:
1.
2%
2.
2.02%
3.
4%
4.
4.04%
Ques
3.
Two pipes A and B can fill a cistern in 37
minutes and 45 minutes respectively. Both pipes are opened. The cistern will be filled in just half an hour, if the B is turned off after:
1.
5 min.
2.
9 min.
3.
10 min.
4.
15 min.
Ques
4.
The curved surface area of a cylindrical pillar is 264 m2 and its volume is 924 m3. Find the ratio of its diameter to its height.
1.
3 : 7
2.
7 : 3
3.
6 : 7
4.
7 : 6
Ques
5.
If every second Saturday and all Sundays are holidays in a 30 days month beginning on Saturday, then how many working days are there in that month?
Ques
6.
A sells an article to B at a profit of 10% B sells the article back to A at a loss of 10%. In this transaction:
1.
A neither losses nor gains
2.
A makes a profit of 11%
3.
A makes a profit of 20%
4.
B loses 20%
Ques
7.
Two successive discount of 10% and 20% are equivalent to a single discount of:
1.
30%
2.
28%
3.
26%
4.
25%
Ques
8.
12 men can complete a piece of work in 4 days, while 15 women can complete the same work in 4 days. 6 men start working on the job and after working for 2 days, all of them stopped working. How many women should be put on the job to complete the remaining work, if it is to be completed in 3 days?
Ques
9.
What is the next term in the series : 25, 34, 52,79, 115,?
1.
160
2.
140
3.
153
4.
190
Ques
10.
From a container, full of pure milk, 20% is replaced by water and this process is repeated three times. At the end of third operation, the quantity of pure milk reduces to
1.
40.00%
2.
50.00%
3.
51.20%
4.
58.80%
Ques
11.
The speed of a 100 m long running train A is 40% more than the speed of another 180 m long train B running in the opposite directions. To find out the speed of train B, which of the information given in statements P and Q is sufficient? P : The two trai
1.
Only P is sufficient
2.
Only Q is sufficient
3.
Both P and Q are needed
4.
Both P & Q are not sufficient
Ques
12.
A two member committee comprising of one male and one female member is to be constitute out of five males and three females. Amongst the females. Ms. A refuses to be a member of the committee in which Mr. B is taken as the member. In how many different ways can the committee be constituted ?
Ques
13.
A can contains a mixture of two liquids A and B in the ratio 7:5.When 9 litres of mixture are drawn off and the can is filled with B, the ratio of A and B becomes 7:9. How many litres of liquid A was contained by the can initially?
Ques
14.
In a test, minimum passing percentage for girls and boys are 45% and 60% respectively. A boy scored 767 marks and failed by 313 marks. What are the minimum passing marks for girls?
1.
910
2.
920
3.
840
4.
810
Ques
15.
A man invests some money partly in 9% stock at 96 and partly in 12% stock at 120. To obtain equal dividends from both, he must invest the money in the ratio:
1.
3 : 4
2.
3 : 5
3.
4 : 5
4.
16 : 15
Ques
16.
A is 50% as efficient as B. C does half of the work done by A and B together. If C alone does the work in 40 days, then A, B and C together can do the work in
1.
15 1/3 days
2.
13 1/3 days
3.
14 1/3 days
4.
12 1/3 days
Ques
17.
The marked price of a shirt and trousers are in the ratio 1:2. The shopkeeper gives 40% discount on the shirt. If the total discount in the set of the shirt and trousers is 30%, the discount offered on the trousers is
1.
15%
2.
20%
3.
25%
4.
30%
Ques
18.
In an examination 80% candidates passed in English and 85% candidates passed in Mathematics. If 73% candidates passed in both these subjects, then what per cent of candidates failed in both the subjects?
Ques
19.
Find the next term in the series: 3, 6, 9, 18, 27, 54, ...
Ques
20.
A person having bought goods for Rs. 400 sells half of it at a gain of 5%, at what gain % must he sell the remainder so as to gain 20% on the whole?
1.
30%
2.
32%
3.
34%
4.
35%
Ques
21.
A car travelling with of its actual speed covers 42 km in 1 hr 40 min 48 sec. Find the actual speed of the car.
1.
30 Km/hr
2.
50 Km/hr
3.
70 Km/hr
4.
35 Km/hr
Ques
22.
If the price of a commodity is decreased by 20% and its consumption is increased by 20%, what will be the increase or decrease in expenditure on the commodity?
1.
4% increase
2.
4% decrease
3.
8% increase
4.
8% decrease
Ques
23.
A goat is tied to one corner of a square plot of side 12m by a rope 7m long.Find the area it can graze?
1.
155 sq.m
2.
19.25 sq.m
3.
144 sq.m
4.
38.5 sq.m
Ques
24.
30% of a number when subtracted from 91, gives the number itself. Find the number.
Ques
25.
A train 700 m long is running at 72kmph. If it crosses a tunnel in I minute, the length of the length of the tunnel is
1.
600m
2.
650m
3.
500m
4.
550m
Ques
26.
Arun bought toffees at 6 for a rupee. How many for a rupee he should sell to gain 20%?
Ques
27.
Q is as much younger than R as he is older than T. If the sum of the ages of R and T is 50 years, what is the difference between R and Q’s age?
1.
1 year
2.
2 years
3.
25 years
4.
Data insufficient
Ques
28.
If a person walks at 14 km/hr instead of 10 km/hr, he would have walked 20 km more. The actual distance travelled by him is:
1.
50 Km
2.
70 KM
3.
90 Km
4.
100 Km
Ques
29.
16, 25, 36, 72, 144, 196, 225
1.
36
2.
72
3.
196
4.
225
Ques
30.
Three unbiased coins are tossed. What is the probability of getting at most two heads?
1.
(3/4)
2.
(1/4)
3.
(3/8)
4.
(7/8)
Answers are:
Ques
1:
3
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2:
4
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3:
2
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4:
2
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5:
4
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6:
2
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7:
2
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8:
2
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9:
1
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10:
3
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11:
1
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12:
4
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13:
1
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14:
4
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15:
4
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16:
2
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17:
3
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18:
1
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19:
1
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20:
4
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21:
4
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22:
2
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23:
4
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24:
4
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25:
3
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26:
4
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27:
4
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28:
1
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29:
2
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30:
4
Section :
Environmental Studies
( Marks :
30.00)
1.
Planet
2.
Satellite
3.
Comet
4.
Star
Ques
2.
Most of the reptiles like snakes, crocodiles, etc. eat their food by:
1.
Tearing its flesh
2.
A process called cud chewing
3.
Swallowing it as a whole
4.
Sucking its blood
Ques
3.
A human body consists of ________ number of bones
1.
205
2.
206
3.
207
4.
208
Ques
4.
Sanjay has a sugar cube in her mouth, in which part of his tongue, will the cube be sweetest?
1.
Front
2.
Middle
3.
Rear
4.
Sides
Ques
5.
Which of the following plays an important role in the cause of rainfall
1.
Evaporation
2.
Condensation
3.
Both evaporation & condensation
4.
Filtration
Ques
6.
During breathing which gas is most required by us?
1.
Hydrogen
2.
Oxygen
3.
Carondioxide
4.
Nitrogen
Ques
7.
Which Indian scientist has got a Nobel Prize for his contribution in physics?
1.
Rabindra Nath Tagore
2.
Mahatma Gandhi
3.
Albert Einstein
4.
Hargovind Khurana
Ques
8.
Flamingos have ______ kind of feet
1.
Perching
2.
Wading
3.
Webbed
4.
None of these
Ques
9.
In spring which of the following occurs?
1.
The days are longer & nights are shorter
2.
The nights are longer & days are shorter
3.
Days and nights are of almost equal duration
4.
None of the above
Ques
10.
The tomato plant falls under the category of:
1.
Herbs
2.
Shrubs
3.
Trees
4.
Grass
Ques
11.
The process of solid changing into liquid upon the supply of heat is called:
1.
Condensation
2.
Evaporation
3.
Melting
4.
Boiling
Ques
12.
How many muscles are there in a human body?
1.
600
2.
700
3.
800
4.
900
Ques
13.
Paper is mainly made up of:
1.
Cellulose & starch
2.
Polythene & cotton
3.
Bamboo & grass
4.
Sunflower & Maize
Ques
14.
During summer the earth is
1.
Closer to the sun
2.
Away from the sun
3.
Closer to the moon
4.
Away from the moon
Ques
15.
When we exhale, our lungs have to:
1.
Contract
2.
Expand
3.
Be still
4.
None of the above
Ques
16.
Which part of the body controls all the other organs?
1.
Heart
2.
Eyes
3.
Brain
4.
Stomach
Ques
17.
The tail of flying birds acts as rudder. By this statement we can understand that the tail acts as:
1.
A part of the body which is beautiful
2.
A part which wards off flies and mosquitoes
3.
A part which guides the bird while flying
4.
A part which helps the bird take off
Ques
18.
The combination of which of the following soils is best for plant growth
1.
Clay, sand & gravel
2.
Humus, clay & gravel
3.
Sand, humus & gravel
4.
Humus, sand & clay
Ques
19.
How much time does the earth take to complete one rotation?
1.
24 hrs.
2.
1 day
3.
1 year
4.
Both A & B
Ques
20.
Which of the following is not a part of the excretory system?
1.
Eyes
2.
Kidneys
3.
Lungs
4.
Skin
Ques
21.
Non-green plants like mushroom can’t make their own food because:
1.
They are too small
2.
They lack chlorophyll
3.
They lack photo-tropism
4.
They lack roots to suck water
Ques
22.
The young ones of the frog are called:
1.
Young frogs
2.
Frog cubs
3.
Puppies
4.
Tadpoles
Ques
23.
Our head is made up of only one movable bone; it is called:
1.
Skull
2.
Cranium
3.
Jawbone
4.
Collarbone
Ques
24.
Which of the following does not belong to the group formed by the other trees?
1.
Mango
2.
Coconut
3.
Tamarind
4.
Neem
Ques
25.
Cows have strong grinding teeth at the back of the mouth, but they cannot eat the flesh of the of other animals. This is because:
1.
They do not need to eat the flesh
2.
They don’t have strong grinding teeth at the front
3.
They don’t have long sharp pointed teeth
4.
They dislike eating flesh
Ques
26.
We slip very easily on a wet floor because
1.
Water reduces the friction
2.
Water increases the friction
3.
We slip because we lose our balance
4.
None of the above
Ques
27.
The mosquito repellent (coils, mats and liquids) that we generally use in our homes are:
1.
Pesticides
2.
Fertilizers
3.
Sedatives
4.
Insecticides
Ques
28.
When some sugar is dissolved in a glass of water, the water level:
1.
Increases
2.
Decreases
3.
Remains the same
4.
None of the above
Ques
29.
The nature of relationship between condensation & evaporation is:
1.
They are the same
2.
They are opposite
3.
They are similar but not in all respects
4.
None of the above
Ques
30.
We have days and nights because of:
1.
Earth’s rotation
2.
Earth’s revolution
3.
Sun’s rotation
4.
Sun’s revolution
Answers are:
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1:
4
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2:
3
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3:
2
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4:
1
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5:
3
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6:
2
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4
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8:
2
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9:
3
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1
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3
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1
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3
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14:
1
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15:
1
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16:
3
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17:
3
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18:
4
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19:
4
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20:
1
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21:
2
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22:
4
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23:
3
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24:
2
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25:
3
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26:
1
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27:
4
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28:
3
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29:
2
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30:
1
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