Multiple Choice Question and Answer for UPTET Paper 1 (Hindi, English) Model Paper 7 (Marks : 150.00)

       

Section : Child Development and Methodology and Pedagogy

( Marks : 30.00)

Ques 1. The process whereby the genetic factors limit an individual’s responsiveness to the environment is known as:
1. Canalization
2. Discontinuity
3. Differentiation
4. Range of reaction


Ques 2. An assessment that is conducted prior to the start of teaching or instruction is called
1. initial assessment
2. formal assessment
3. formative assessment
4. summative assessment


Ques 3. The technique of classroom management where the teacher punishes negative behaviors by removing an unruly student from the rest of the class is called
1. satiation technique
2. time out technique
3. corporal punishment
4. extinction technique


Ques 4. Education is a process in which knowledge and skills are transferred
1. from a few persons to a large number of people
2. from a few persons to the next generation
3. from a generation to the next generation
4. from a few persons to few persons


Ques 5. Intelligence testing is useful for knowing_____
1. Individual difference
2. Mental retardation
3. Educational backwardness
4. All of these


Ques 6. In cooperative method teachers act as a delegator means the teacher act as a/an ________ to the students.
1. foster
2. partner
3. resource
4. evaluator


Ques 7. What is the unit of Heredity?
1. Chromosome
2. Gene
3. fertilized cell
4. Zygote


Ques 8. Validity of an assessment relates to the __________ of an assessment.
1. quality
2. relevance
3. usefulness
4. consistency


Ques 9. "The famous book ""The Republic"" was written by"
1. Plato
2. Aristotle
3. Socrates
4. John Locke


Ques 10. According to Socrates, physical objects and events are __________ of their ideal form.
1. signs
2. parts
3. images
4. shadows


Ques 11. Educational psychology is concerned with the scientific study of
1. education
2. human learning
3. teaching methods
4. philosophy of education


Ques 12. A major strength of ecological theory is its framework for explaining
1. Environmental influences on development.
2. Biological influences on development.
3. Cognitive development.
4. Affective processes in development.


Ques 13. "The ""Academy"" was founded in"
1. Chakis
2. Athens
3. Stagira
4. Macedonia


Ques 14. A normal human being has __________ senses.
1. 5
2. 7
3. 9
4. 11


Ques 15. The satiation technique of classroom management is a technique where instead of punishing negative behaviors, the teacher might decide to actually __________ the negative behavior.
1. divert
2. ignore
3. encourage
4. discourage


Ques 16. Good reading aims at developing
1. understanding
2. pronunciation
3. sensitivity
4. increasing factual knowledge


Ques 17. Plato argued that __________ are fit to rule.
1. only educationists
2. only philosophers
3. only psychologists
4. educationists and philosophers


Ques 18. All of the following advanced principles of child development that are closely allied to the stimulus response learning theory, except
1. Pavilov
2. J B Waston
3. Hull
4. Gesell


Ques 19. The current movement of behavior modification, wherein tokens are awarded for correct responses, is
1. Herbart‟s Five Steps
2. Lock‟s Tabula rasa
3. Thorndike's Law of Effect
4. Thorndike's Law of Exercise


Ques 20. The longer a particular ability is unused the __________ it becomes.
1. weaker
2. stronger
3. less important
4. more important


Ques 21. Frobel‟s most important contribution to education was his development of the
1. Vocational school
2. Public high school
3. Kindergarten
4. Latin School


Ques 22. A child of 16 years scores 75 in an IQ test; his mental age will be________ years.
1. 12
2. 8
3. 14
4. 15


Ques 23. A major strength of ecological theory is its framework for explaining:
1. Environment influences on development
2. Biological influences on development
3. Congentivedevelopment
4. Affective processes in development


Ques 24. The affective domain involves
1. manner
2. learning
3. knowledge
4. physical movement


Ques 25. As people grow older, the __________ of learning declines.
1. power
2. speed
3. quality
4. quantity


Ques 26. Creative writing should be an activity planned for
1. Only those children reading on grade level
2. Only those children who can spell and also, can write cohesive sentences
3. Only those children who want to write for the newspaper of the class
4. All children


Ques 27. "The idea of teaching the whole child in the ""philosophy of pragmatism in education"" means teaching students to be good"
1. citizens
2. thinkers
3. learners
4. scientists


Ques 28. According to John Dewey, school is a __________ institution, and education is a __________ process.
1. social[comma] social
2. social[comma] philosophical
3. philosophical[comma] philosophical
4. environmental[comma] psychological


Ques 29. There are __________ laws of connectionism.
1. 1
2. 2
3. 3
4. 4


Ques 30. All of the following advanced principles of child development that are closely allied to the stimulus response learning theory, except
1. Pavilov
2. J B Waston
3. Hull
4. Gesell


Answers are:
Ques 1: 4
Ques 2: 1
Ques 3: 1
Ques 4: 2
Ques 5: 4
Ques 6: 3
Ques 7: 2
Ques 8: 2
Ques 9: 1
Ques 10: 4
Ques 11: 2
Ques 12: 2
Ques 13: 2
Ques 14: 1
Ques 15: 3
Ques 16: 1
Ques 17: 2
Ques 18: 4
Ques 19: 4
Ques 20: 1
Ques 21: 3
Ques 22: 1
Ques 23: 4
Ques 24: 1
Ques 25: 2
Ques 26: 4
Ques 27: 1
Ques 28: 1
Ques 29: 3
Ques 30: 2


Section : Language I (Hindi)

( Marks : 30.00)

Ques 1. आबनूस का कुन्दा
1. विकृत स्वभाव वाला
2. अत्यन्त काले रंग का मनुष्य
3. मन का अत्यधिक काला
4. गलत संगति में पडना


Ques 2. विश्वम्भर
1. तत्पुरूष
2. द्विगु
3. द्वन्द्व
4. कर्मधारय


Ques 3. दामिनी
1. ननीत
2. चमक
3. उर्जा
4. बिजली


Ques 4. तनु
1. शरीर
2. महीन
3. चन्द्रमा
4. खटिया


Ques 5. "अंतर्द्वद्व" में किस उपसर्ग का प्रयोग हुआ है
1. अंत
2. आ
3. अंतर्
4. अन्तर


Ques 6. निम्नलिखित प्रश्न में दिए गए वाक्य में से कुछ में त्रुटि है और कुछ ठीक हैं। त्रुटि वाले वाक्य में जिस भाग में त्रुटि हो, उस भाग का अक्षरांक (अ,ब,स अथवा द) ही आपका उत्तर है। यदि वाक्य में कोई त्रुटि न हो ‘कोई त्रुटि नहीं‘ को उत्तर के रूप के चिन्हित कीजिए
1. मैं पटना गया
2. तो उस समय
3.  मेरे पास केवल बीस रूपये मात्र थे।
4. कोई त्रुटि नही।


Ques 7. निम्नलिखित में कर्तृवाच्य वाक्य का चयन कीजिए:
1. मोहन पुस्तक पढता है।
2. आपके द्वारा मनुष्य मालूम हुआ
3. नींद नहीं आती।
4. पुस्तक पढी गई


Ques 8. निम्नलिखित प्रश्न में दिए गए वाक्य में से कुछ में त्रुटि है और कुछ ठीक हैं। त्रुटि वाले वाक्य में जिस भाग में त्रुटि हो, उस भाग का अक्षरांक (अ,ब,स अथवा द) ही आपका उत्तर है। यदि वाक्य में कोई त्रुटि न हो ‘कोई त्रुटि नहीं‘ को उत्तर के रूप के चिन्हित कीजिए
1. तुम इस कक्षा में आते हो
2.  तो तुम्हारी पुस्तक
3. साथ क्यों नही लाते?
4.  कोई त्रुटि नही।


Ques 9. विनायक
1. सुर
2. पुत्र
3. शत्रु
4. गणेष


Ques 10. निम्नलिखित में से सही शब्द-शुद्धि का चुनाव कीजिए।
1. क्षेत्र
2. छेत्र
3. क्षत्र
4. श्वेत्र


Ques 11. अंधो में काना राजा
1. अज्ञानियों में अल्प ज्ञान वाले का सम्मान होना
2.  विद्वानों की सभा में मूर्ख का सम्मान होना
3. मूर्खों द्वारा विधा की पूजा करना
4. दुष्टों की सभा में सज्जन का सम्मान होना


Ques 12. "स्वेच्छा", "स्वागत" शब्दों में उपसर्ग है ?
1. सु सु
2. स्व स्व
3. स्व सु
4. सव् सू


Ques 13. रात्रि
1. क्षपा
2. तमीचर
3. अमा
4. विभावरी


Ques 14. उन्मीलन
1. अमीलन
2. निमीलन
3. मीलन
4. विमीलन


Ques 15. स्वकीया
1. स्वीकृत
2. अस्वीकृत
3. नारकीय
4. परकीया


Ques 16. धरती
1. चंचला
2. विपुला
3. सरसी
4. अचला


Ques 17. ईष्वरेच्छा
1. दीर्घ संधि
2. गुण संधि
3. विसर्ग संधि
4. वृद्धि संधि


Ques 18. मरण
1. जीवन
2. मृत्यु
3. नरक
4. जन्म


Ques 19. चिरन्तन
1. अलौकिक
2. लौकिक
3. नष्वर
4. नैसर्गिक


Ques 20. उद्देष्य
1. लक्ष
2. लक्ष्य
3. लाख
4. इनमें से कोई नहीं


Ques 21. सकाम
1. कुकर्म
2. अकाम
3. निष्काम
4. निष्फल


Ques 22. स्थावर
1. सूचल
2. चंचल
3. चेतन
4. जंगम


Ques 23. "अनभिज्ञ" में कौनसा उपसर्ग है ?
1. अन
2. अन्
3. अ
4. अनः


Ques 24. वायु
1. अनिल
2. अनल
3. अलिन्द
4. अलिनी


Ques 25. "आकाश" में उपसर्ग है
1. आ
2. अ
3. अक्
4. इनमें से कोई नहीं


Instruction : रिक्शे पर मीरा के साथ हँसती-बोलती ॠतु घर पहुँची | सीढ़ीयाँ चढ़ने लगी तो कुछ झगड़ने की आवाज़े सुनाई दी | ऊपर पहुँची तो देखा, दोनों आजू-बाजू वाली पड़ोसनें झगड़ रही थीं | अपने दरवाज़े के पास खड़ी होकर उसने कुछ देर उनकी बातें सुनीं तो झगड़े का कारण समझ में आया | एक की महरी ने घर साफ़ करके कचरा दूसरी के दरवाज़े की ओर फेंक दिया था, इसी बात का झगड़ा था | ॠतु ने दोनों को समझाया-बुझाया | आख़िरकार कचरा फेंकने वाली महरी को बुलाया गया | उसने झाड़ू थामी और कचरा सीढ़ी की ओर धकेल दिया | फिर वह महरी अंदर चली गई | दोनों पड़ोसनों ने भी अंदर जाकर अपने-अपने दार बंद कर लिए | ॠतु खड़ी-खड़ी देखती रही | जो सीढ़ी पहले से ही गंदी थी वह और भी गंदी हो गई | रेत का तो साम्राज्य ही था | कहीं बादाम के छिलके पड़े थे तो कहीं चूसी हुई ईख के लच्छे; कहीं बालों का गुच्छा उड़ रहा था तो कहीं कुछ और | मन वितृष्णा से भर उठा | सोचा, इस सीढ़ी से चढ़कर सब अपने घर तक आते हैं, इससे उतरकर दफ्तर, बाजार आदि अपनी इच्छित जगहों पर जाते हैं, पर इसे कोई साफ़ नहीं करता | उलटे सब इस पर कचरा फेंक देते हैं | साझे की सीढ़ी है न ! गंदगी बिखेरने का हक सबको मिला है और साफ़ करने का कर्तव्य किसी का नहीं है | स्वच्छता तो जैसे अनबुझी तृष्णा हो गई |(From Ques 26 to Ques 30)
Ques 26. अनुच्छेद का सन्देश है
1. स्वच्छता सबका कर्तव्य
2. हसते-बोलते रहना
3. पड़ोसिनों का धर्म
4. कामवाली का उत्तरदायित्व


Ques 27. अनुच्छेद में "घृणा” का पयार्यवाची शब्द है
1. तृष्णा
2. झगड़ना
3. वितृष्णा
4. साझा


Ques 28. "महरी” किसे कहा जाता है?
1. महर की पत्नी
2. कामवाली
3. पड़ोसन
4. अनजान औरत


Ques 29. ॠतु का मन घृणा से भर गया, क्योंकि
1. दोनों पड़ोसियों ने दरवाजे बंद कर दिए थे
2. उसने नहाया नहीं था
3. पड़ोसनें लड़ रही थीं
4. सीढ़ियों में कचरा फैल गया था


Ques 30. ॠतु को कैसी आवाज़ें सुनाई दी?
1. उठाने-पटकने की
2. हँसने-बोलने की
3. खेलने-कूदने की
4. लड़ने-झगड़ने की


Answers are:
Ques 1: 2
Ques 2: 4
Ques 3: 4
Ques 4: 1
Ques 5: 3
Ques 6: 4
Ques 7: 4
Ques 8: 3
Ques 9: 4
Ques 10: 1
Ques 11: 1
Ques 12: 3
Ques 13: 4
Ques 14: 2
Ques 15: 4
Ques 16: 4
Ques 17: 2
Ques 18: 1
Ques 19: 3
Ques 20: 1
Ques 21: 3
Ques 22: 2
Ques 23: 2
Ques 24: 2
Ques 25: 1
Ques 26: 1
Ques 27: 3
Ques 28: 2
Ques 29: 4
Ques 30: 4


Section : Language II (English)

( Marks : 30.00)

Ques 1. Find the correctly spelt word.
1. Ordinannce
2. Ordinence
3. Ordinance
4. Ordinnance


Ques 2. and upholds a tradition of dissent which is (A)/ in line with protecting the rights of (B)/JNU promotes a diverse yet inclusive campus (C)/ free speech and promoting the values of democracy (D)/
1. CABD
2. CBDA
3. DCBA
4. BACD


Ques 3. Feckless
1. Jaded
2. Morbid
3. Competent
4. Forlorn


Ques 4. Find the correctly spelt word.
1. Appology
2. Apology
3. Apalogy
4. Apollogy


Ques 5. Make someone the scapegoat for something
1. To make to bear the sins for others
2. Enjoy different opportunities at a single time
3. Take a subordinate position
4. Worried for frivolous things


Ques 6. Find the correctly spelt word.
1. Necesity
2. Necessity
3. Neccesity
4. Nesessity


Ques 7. Find the correctly spelt word.
1. Unles
2. Unless
3. Unlless
4. Unlas


Ques 8. Lucrative
1. Profitable
2. Important
3. Challenging
4. Worthwhile


Ques 9. Departments are unable to conduct a (A)/ agencies such as the Police and Public Works (B)/ technical investigation into an accident (C)/ without expert help, executive (D)/
1. CDAB
2. CADB
3. CBAD
4. DBAC


Ques 10. I. Economic growth, which had been ___________ down for some time but had been given a boost by strong governance reforms was given a demand boost to facilitate ___________ acceleration.
II. Forced __________ is when political parties hire PR agencies which ___________ employ social media ‘influencers’ who release the same tweets with the hashtag at a high intensity.
1. trending further
2. trading, more
3. hover, advance
4. shot, progress


Ques 11. Find the correctly spelt word.
1. Acsessibility
2. Accessibility
3. Accessebility
4. Accessiblity


Ques 12. Calamitous
1. Fortunate
2. Haggard
3. Ambivalent
4. Cantankerous


Ques 13. After months of writer's block, I'm still surprised that I just reeled off three short stories in a week.
1. Get something done easily
2. Get things done after a lot of hard work
3. To realize something
4. Both A and B


Ques 14. under its Structural Adjustment Programmes policy (A)/ towards social sectors like health and education (B)/ since the early 1990s, the Indian government (C)/ started shrinking its financial responsibility (D)
1. CBDA
2. DBAC
3. CADB
4. ACBD


Ques 15. Squander
1. Expensive
2. Waste
3. Litter
4. Economical


Ques 16. OBEISANCE
1. homage
2. pilgrimage
3. subjugation
4. obligation


Ques 17. The difference in the cultural relationship to punctuality is another stumbling block between India and Japan.
1. Consecration
2. Impediment
3. Slab of rock
4. Assistance


Ques 18. Find the correctly spelt word.
1. Vacillation
2. Vacilliation
3. Vasillation
4. Vacilation


Ques 19. Find the correctly spelt word.
1. Whitle
2. Whittle
3. Wheettle
4. Wheetle


Ques 20. Ramesh spiled (A) / juice all over Raj’s new (B) / clothes and did not even care (C) / to apologise. (D) / All correct (E)
1. spiled
2. new
3. care
4. apologise


Ques 21. Find the correctly spelt word.
1. Generaly
2. Genrelly
3. Generally
4. Genarlly


Ques 22. Asked after his re-election if he would run for yet another term in office, Putin laughed off the idea.
1. Omit
2. Considered
3. Illuminate
4. Dismiss


Ques 23. Ronald was very proud (A) / of his new car and would always (B) / be on the lookout for an excuse (C) / to flaunt (D) / it. All correct (E)
1. proud
2. always
3. excuse
4. flaunt


Ques 24. Resurgence
1. Relocation
2. Renewal
3. Reluctance
4. Repletion


Ques 25. The book is full (A) / of updated (B) / and contemparary (C) / commentary. (D) / All correct (E)
1. full
2. updated
3. contemparary
4. commentary


Instruction : The large number of natural disasters within a few days in late September has led to two assumptions. First we are experiencing more natural calamities today (1) ever before and second the distribution of disasters (2) unequal. A U N report studied natural disasters (3) 1975 and 2007 found that not only is the (4) of catastrophes increasing because of climate change and environmental (5) but also that the burnt of tragedies is borne (6) poor countries least equipped to deal with such (7) . It is true that some countries are disaster prone but some (8) Japan for example have managed to overcome their geographical disadvantages. (9) to U.N. estimates equivalent populations in the Philippines and Japan (10) the same number of cyclones each year but 17 times more people perish in the Philippines than in Japan. In same ways natural improvement while in poorer ones it feeds a vicious cycle-since they are constantly struggling to recover from natural calamities they cannot afford the disaster prevention measures needed.(From Ques 26 to Ques 30)
Ques 26. Solve as per the DIRECTION given above:
1. as
2. than
3. not
4. of


Ques 27. Solve as per the DIRECTION given above:
1. degradation
2. protection
3. detriment
4. audit


Ques 28. Solve as per the DIRECTION given above:
1. response
2. chances
3. occurring
4. damage


Ques 29. Solve as per the DIRECTION given above:
1. after
2. prior
3. between
4. separating


Ques 30. Solve as per the DIRECTION given above:
1. being
2. are
3. often
4. is


Answers are:
Ques 1: 3
Ques 2: 1
Ques 3: 3
Ques 4: 2
Ques 5: 1
Ques 6: 2
Ques 7: 2
Ques 8: 1
Ques 9: 4
Ques 10: 1
Ques 11: 2
Ques 12: 1
Ques 13: 1
Ques 14: 3
Ques 15: 2
Ques 16: 1
Ques 17: 2
Ques 18: 1
Ques 19: 2
Ques 20: 1
Ques 21: 3
Ques 22: 4
Ques 23: 5
Ques 24: 2
Ques 25: 3
Ques 26: 2
Ques 27: 1
Ques 28: 5
Ques 29: 3
Ques 30: 4


Section : Mathematics

( Marks : 30.00)

Ques 1. A train overtakes two persons who are walking in the same direction in which the train is going, at the rate of 2 kmph and 4 kmph and passes them completely in 9 and 10 seconds respectively. The length of the train is
1. 50m
2. 55m
3. 60m
4. 65m


Ques 2. A man takes twice as long to row a distance against the stream as to row the same distance in favour of the stream. The ratio of the speed of the boat (in still water) and the stream is:
1. 2:01
2. 3:01
3. 3:01
4. 4:03


Ques 3.

A runs 1 times as fast as B. If A gives B a start of 80 m, how far must the winning post be so that A and B might reach it at the same time?

1. 200 m
2. 300 m
3. 270 m
4. 160 m


Ques 4. Let N be the greatest number that will divide 1305, 4665 and 6905, leaving the same remainder in each case. Then sum of the digits in N is:
1. 4
2. 5
3. 6
4. 8


Ques 5. A train covers a distance in 50 min, if it runs at a speed of 48kmph on an average. The speed at which the train must run to reduce the time of journey to 40min will be.
1. 60 km/h
2. 55 km/h
3. 40 km/h
4. 70 km/h


Ques 6.

A person"s present age is two-fifth of the age of his mother. After 8 years, he will be one-half of the age of his mother. How old is the mother at present?

1. 32 years
2. 36 years
3. 40 years
4. 48 years


Ques 7. A train 60 m long passes a platform 90 m long in 10 seconds. The speed of the train is
1. 60 km/h
2. 58 km/h
3. 54 km/h
4. 50 km/h


Ques 8.

Six bells commence tolling together and toll at intervals of 2, 4, 6, 8 10 and 12 seconds respectively. In 30 minutes, how many times do they toll together ?

1. 4
2. 10
3. 15
4. 16


Ques 9. Two ships are sailing in the sea on the two sides of a lighthouse. The angle of elevation of the top of the lighthouse is observed from the ships are 30º and 45º respectively. If the lighthouse is 100 m high, the distance between the two ships is:
1. 173 m
2. 200 m
3. 273 m
4. 300 m


Ques 10. A and B started a business in partnership investing Rs. 20,000 and Rs. 15,000 respectively. After six months, C joined them with Rs. 20,000. What will be B's share in total profit of Rs. 25,000 earned at the end of 2 years from the starting of the business?
1. Rs. 7500
2. Rs. 9000
3. Rs. 9500
4. Rs. 10,000


Ques 11. The population of a village is 5000 and it increases at the rate of 2% every year. After 2 years, the population will be:
1. 5116
2. 5202
3. 5200
4. 5204


Ques 12. 6, 9, 15, 21, 24, 28, 30
1. 28
2. 21
3. 24
4. 30


Ques 13. A merchant has announced 25% rebate on prices of ready-made garments at the time of sale. If a purchaser needs to have a rebate of ₹ 400, then how many shirts, each costing ₹ 320, should he purchase?
1. 10
2. 7
3. 6
4. 5


Ques 14.

The simple interest and the true discount on a certain sum for a given time and at a given rate are Rs. 85 and Rs. 80 respectively. The sum is:

1. Rs. 1800
2. Rs. 1450
3. Rs. 1360
4. Rs. 6800


Ques 15. A tank is 25 m long, 12 m wide and 6 m deep. The cost of plastering its walls and bottom at 75 paise per sq. m, is:
1. Rs. 456
2. Rs. 458
3. Rs. 558
4. Rs. 568


Ques 16. How many Permutations of the letters of the word APPLE are there?
1. 600
2. 120
3. 240
4. 60


Ques 17. The sum of the digits of a two digit number is 12. If the new number formed by reversing the digits is greater than the original number by 54, then what will be the original number?
1. 93
2. 28
3. 48
4. 39


Ques 18. The first republic day of the India was celebrated on 26th January,1950. It was
1. Monday
2. Wednesday
3. Thursday
4. Friday


Ques 19. The ratio, in which tea costing Rs. 192 per kg is to be mixed with tea costing Rs. 150 per kg so that the mixed tea when sold for Rs. 194.40 per kg, gives a profit of 20%.
1. 2:05
2. 3:05
3. 5:03
4. 5:02


Ques 20. The cost price of an article is 80% of its marked price for sale. How much per cent does the tradesman gain after allowing a discount of 12%?
1. 20
2. 12
3. 10
4. 8


Ques 21. Two successive discount of 10% and 20% are equivalent to a single discount of:
1. 30%
2. 28%
3. 26%
4. 25%


Ques 22. If two numbers are respectively 30% and 40% more than a third number, what percent is the first of the second?
1. 92(6/7)%
2. 84(4/5)%
3. 80%
4. 75%


Ques 23. What is the day on 1st January 1901?
1. Monday
2. Wednesday
3. Sunday
4. Tuesday


Ques 24.

If log 27 = 1.431, then the value of log 9 is:

1. 0.934
2. 0.945
3. 0.954
4. 0.958


Ques 25. If the day before yesterday was Thursday, when will Sunday be?
1. Tomorrow
2. Today
3. Two days after today
4. Day after tomorrow


Ques 26. Two trains of equal lengths take 10 seconds and 15 seconds respectively to cross a telegraph post. If the length of each train be 120 metres, in what time will they cross each other travelling in opposite direction?
1. 9 s
2. 10 s
3. 11 s
4. 12 s


Ques 27. A man buys Rs. 20 shares paying 9% dividend. The man wants to have an interest of 12% on his money. The market value of each share is:
1. Rs. 12
2. Rs. 15
3. Rs. 18
4. Rs. 21


Ques 28. If a% of x is equal to b% of y, then of c% of y is what % of x ?
1. c%
2. (ac/b)%
3. (bc/a)%
4. abc%


Ques 29.

10, 14, 16, 18, 21, 24, 26

1. 26
2. 24
3. 21
4. 18


Ques 30.

An error 2% in excess is made while measuring the side of a square. The percentage of error in the calculated area of the square is:

1. 2%
2. 2.02%
3. 4%
4. 4.04%


Answers are:
Ques 1: 1
Ques 2: 2
Ques 3: 1
Ques 4: 1
Ques 5: 1
Ques 6: 3
Ques 7: 3
Ques 8: 4
Ques 9: 3
Ques 10: 1
Ques 11: 2
Ques 12: 1
Ques 13: 4
Ques 14: 3
Ques 15: 3
Ques 16: 4
Ques 17: 4
Ques 18: 3
Ques 19: 1
Ques 20: 3
Ques 21: 2
Ques 22: 1
Ques 23: 4
Ques 24: 3
Ques 25: 1
Ques 26: 4
Ques 27: 2
Ques 28: 2
Ques 29: 3
Ques 30: 4


Section : Environmental Studies

( Marks : 30.00)

Ques 1. Environment Protection Act of 1986 is meant for
1. Waste management
2. Forest management
3. Desert management
4. Protection of human environment including human[comma] plants[comma] animals and property


Ques 2. Tidal power plants are not preferred by environmentalists because,
1. Tidal power is a renewable source
2. Tidal power can be developed only in coasts
3. Tidal power stations bring about major ecological changes in sensitive coastalecosystem
4. None of the above


Ques 3. Energy obtained from the Earth's hot interior is called the
1. Geo-Thermal energy
2. Thermal energy
3. Biomass energy
4. None ofthese


Ques 4. Cow dung can be used
1. as manure
2. for production of biogas
3. both (a) and (b)
4. none of these


Ques 5. Recycled water can be used for
1. Crop irrigation
2. Landscape gardening
3. Replenishing fast depleting aquifers
4. All of these


Ques 6. Liquefied petroleum gas is a mixture of
1. Propane and butane
2. Methane and propane
3. Methane and butane
4. Methane and ethane


Ques 7. Direct conversion of solar energy is attained by
1. Galvanic cells
2. Electrolytic cells
3. Hydrogen fuel cells
4. Solar photovoltaic system


Ques 8. Use of Compressed Natural Gas (CNG) came into effect from
1. Dec 2000
2. 1-Dec
3. 2-Dec
4. 3-Dec


Ques 9. Noise pollution limit in industrial area is
1. 65 dB
2. 80 dB
3. 95 dB
4. 100 dB


Ques 10. Which of the following is a natural source of environmental pollution?
1. Earthquake
2. Automobiles
3. Industries
4. Sewage


Ques 11. Air pollution from automobiles can be controlled by fitting
1. wet scrubber
2. catalytic converter
3. electrostatic precipitator
4. all the above


Ques 12. 'Minamata' disease is caused by
1. Lead
2. Arsenic
3. Mercury
4. Cadmium


Ques 13. Which of the following is a natural source of Air pollution?
1. Storms
2. Acid rain
3. Precipitation
4. Volcanic eruptions


Ques 14. Important sources of land pollution are
1. Industrial Wastes
2. Agricultural Wastes
3. Both (a) and (b)
4. None of the above


Ques 15. Climate and global air circulations are mainly affected by the properties of
1. Temperature
2. Precipitation
3. Water and air
4. None of the above


Ques 16. The main impact of urbanization on plant and animal life is
1. Loss of species
2. Mutation in species
3. Increase in species
4. None of these


Ques 17. Global atmospheric temperatures are likely to be increased due to
1. Burning of fossil fuels
2. Water pollution
3. Soil erosion
4. None of the above


Ques 18. The equivalent of one Dobson unit is
1. 0.1 m
2. 0.01 m
3. 0.1 mm
4. 0.01 mm


Ques 19. Ozone hole is said to occur when the ozone level decreases below
1. 2 DU
2. 20 DU
3. 200 DU
4. 2000 DU


Ques 20. The radiations absorbed by ozone layer are
1. Ultra-violet
2. Infra-red
3. Gamma rays
4. Visible


Ques 21. Karnataka State Pollution Control Board was established in the year
1. 1971
2. 1972
3. 1973
4. 1974


Ques 22. First International Earth summit was held at
1. Germany
2. Stockholm
3. Johannesburg
4. Riode Janeiro


Ques 23. Amount of Carbon Dioxide(CO2) content in atmospheric Air is normally
1. 0.21%
2. 0.32%
3. 0.42%
4. 0.43%


Ques 24. EPA means :
1. Environmental Protection Act
2. Environmental Prevention Act
3. Environmental Pollution Act
4. Environmental Protection Agency


Ques 25. Environmental protection is the responsibility of
1. Individuals
2. NGO's
3. Government of India
4. All of the above


Ques 26. The major contributors to the acid rain are known as
1. Protons
2. Pollutants
3. Processors
4. Precursors


Ques 27. 'World Environmental Day' is celebrated every year on:
1. 5th May
2. 5th June
3. 5th July
4. 18th July


Ques 28. Fermentation in the biogas plant is carried out between
1. 30-50 degree C
2. 35-50 degree C
3. 85-15 degree C
4. None of the above


Ques 29. Identify the non-renewable sources of energy from the following
1. Coal
2. Fuel cells
3. Wind power
4. Wave power


Ques 30. Organisms who directly feed on producers are called :
1. Herbivores
2. Omnivores
3. Carnivores
4. Decomposers


Answers are:
Ques 1: 4
Ques 2: 2
Ques 3: 1
Ques 4: 3
Ques 5: 4
Ques 6: 1
Ques 7: 4
Ques 8: 3
Ques 9: 2
Ques 10: 1
Ques 11: 4
Ques 12: 3
Ques 13: 4
Ques 14: 3
Ques 15: 1
Ques 16: 1
Ques 17: 1
Ques 18: 4
Ques 19: 3
Ques 20: 1
Ques 21: 4
Ques 22: 2
Ques 23: 2
Ques 24: 1
Ques 25: 4
Ques 26: 4
Ques 27: 2
Ques 28: 1
Ques 29: 1
Ques 30: 1



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