Multiple Choice Question and Answer for UPTET Paper 1 (Hindi, English) Model Paper 6 (Marks : 150.00)
Section :
Child Development and Methodology and Pedagogy
( Marks :
30.00)
Ques
1.
The term „identical elements‟ is closely associated with:
1.
Group instruction
2.
Transfer of learning
3.
Jealousy between twins
4.
Similar test questions
Ques
2.
The process of expansion of an individual's capacities quantitatively, should be termed as:
1.
Development
2.
Growth
3.
Equilibration
4.
Maturation
Ques
3.
Pedagogy is the study of
1.
Education
2.
Guiding Students
3.
Learning Process
4.
Teaching Methods
Ques
4.
In order to develop the spirit of labour in students
1.
The teacher himself should indulge in labour
2.
The teacher should deliver lectures on the importance of labour
3.
Students should be given opportunities to do labour from time to time
4.
Students should be given examples of laboring people
Ques
5.
All of the following can be signs that a child is gifted,except
1.
Early development of a sense of time
2.
Interest in encyclopedias and dictionaries
3.
Uneasy relationships with peers.
4.
Easy retention of facts
Ques
6.
Most psychologists believe that development is due
1.
Largely to nature.
2.
Largely to nurture.
3.
To nature and nurture acting separately.
4.
To an interaction of nature and nurture.
Ques
7.
How many stages of cognitive development recommended by Piaget?
1.
Seven stages
2.
Six stages
3.
Four Stages
4.
Two Stages
Ques
8.
According to Robert Sternberg, the three different types of required intelligence for creativity are
1.
analytical[comma] critical and practical
2.
abstract[comma] synthetic and analytical
3.
synthetic[comma] analytical[comma] and practical
4.
analytical[comma] observational and practical
Ques
9.
To compile the information into pattern and propose a plan is called
1.
analyzing
2.
evaluating
3.
originating
4.
synthesizing
Ques
10.
Who gives more stress to the philosophy of social constructivism?
1.
Piaget
2.
Kohlberg
3.
Vygotsky
4.
Dewey
Ques
11.
An assessment is __________ if it consistently achieves the same results with the same (or similar) students.
1.
Valid
2.
Invalid
3.
Reliable
4.
Unreliable
Ques
12.
Dialectic method of inquiry was contributed by
1.
Plato
2.
Aristotle
3.
Socrates
4.
John Dewey
Ques
13.
Sign of creative child is his/her
1.
Intelligence
2.
Good behavior
3.
Creativity
4.
Good memory
Ques
14.
Which from the following should be used to increase correct responses and appropriate behavior?
1.
Ignorance
2.
Strictness
3.
Reward
4.
Praise
Ques
15.
Which of the following is not related to educational achievement?
1.
Heredity
2.
Experiences
3.
Practice
4.
Self learning
Ques
16.
The extinction technique of classroom management is a technique where teacher __________ any negative behavior.
1.
divert
2.
ignore
3.
encourage
4.
discourage
Ques
17.
In order to develop the spirit of labour in students
1.
The teacher himself should indulge inlabour
2.
The teacher should deliver lectures on the importance of labour
3.
Students should be given opportunities to do labour from time to time
4.
Students should be given examples of laboring people
Ques
18.
Primary education helps_____.
1.
Socialization of child
2.
Democratization of child
3.
In course understanding
4.
All of the above
Ques
19.
IQ scores are generally ________ correlated with academic performance.
1.
Least
2.
Perfectly
3.
Highly
4.
Moderately
Ques
20.
Single factor theory of intelligence was given by_____
1.
Alfred Binet
2.
Thorndike
3.
Freeman
4.
None of them
Ques
21.
"The first institution of higher learning in the Western world, ""Academy"", was founded by"
1.
Plato
2.
Aristotle
3.
Socrates
4.
John Dewey
Ques
22.
An assessment use to determine a person's ability in a particular field of studies is called
1.
evaluation
2.
aptitude test
3.
measurement
4.
diagnostic test
Ques
23.
Who is the father of ''Theory of Multiple Intelligence''?
1.
Gardner
2.
Vygotsky
3.
Bruner
4.
Piaget
Ques
24.
The role of teacher in inquiry-based learning is of
1.
delegator
2.
instructor
3.
facilitator
4.
formal authority
Ques
25.
A scoring guide use to evaluate the quality of students is called
1.
rubrics
2.
checklists
3.
inventories
4.
rating scales
Ques
26.
The process whereby the genetic factors limit an individual’s responsiveness to the environment is known as:
1.
Canalization
2.
Discontinuity
3.
Differentiation
4.
Range of reaction
Ques
27.
The new curriculum should be introduced
1.
abruptly
2.
gradually
3.
relatively
4.
continuously
Ques
28.
All of the following can be signs that a child is gifted, except
1.
Early development of a sense of time
2.
Interest in encyclopedias and dictionaries
3.
Uneasy relationships with peers.
4.
Easy retention of facts
Ques
29.
The process whereby the genetic factors limit an individual's responsiveness to the environment is known as
1.
Canalization.
2.
Discontinuity.
3.
Differentiation.
4.
Range of reaction.
Ques
30.
The more parts of your brain you use, the more likely you are to __________ information.
1.
use
2.
miss
3.
retain
4.
misuse
Answers are:
Ques
1:
2
Ques
2:
1
Ques
3:
4
Ques
4:
4
Ques
5:
3
Ques
6:
4
Ques
7:
3
Ques
8:
3
Ques
9:
4
Ques
10:
3
Ques
11:
3
Ques
12:
3
Ques
13:
3
Ques
14:
4
Ques
15:
1
Ques
16:
2
Ques
17:
3
Ques
18:
4
Ques
19:
3
Ques
20:
1
Ques
21:
1
Ques
22:
2
Ques
23:
1
Ques
24:
3
Ques
25:
1
Ques
26:
3
Ques
27:
2
Ques
28:
4
Ques
29:
4
Ques
30:
3
Section :
Language I (Hindi)
( Marks :
30.00)
1.
निष्चय
2.
संषय रहित
3.
निःसंषय
4.
सुनिष्चित
1.
राक्षस
2.
दानव
3.
पुरूष
4.
दैत्य
1.
वृक्ष
2.
पुष्प
3.
चन्द्रमा
4.
अग्नि
1.
कर्मधारय
2.
द्विगु
3.
द्वन्द्व
4.
तत्पुरूष
1.
अंधकार
2.
लघिमा
3.
घृणा
4.
नीचता
Ques
6.
निम्नलिखित में से सही शब्द-शुद्धि का चुनाव कीजिए।
1.
चिकित्सक
2.
चकित्सक
3.
चिकत्सिक
4.
चकित्सिक
Ques
7.
निम्नलिखित प्रश्न में दिए गए वाक्य में से कुछ में त्रुटि है और कुछ ठीक हैं। त्रुटि वाले वाक्य में जिस भाग में त्रुटि हो, उस भाग का अक्षरांक (अ,ब,स अथवा द) ही आपका उत्तर है। यदि वाक्य में कोई त्रुटि न हो ‘कोई त्रुटि नहीं‘ को उत्तर के रूप के चिन्हित कीजिए
1.
देव ने उसका साथ नहीं दिया
2.
इस कारण से सग भाग्यवादी
3.
काल।चक्र के पहिये के नीचे पिस गए।
4.
कोई त्रुटि नही।
1.
दुःखी
2.
आरती
3.
पुकार
4.
चीख
Ques
9.
"चिरायु" शब्द में प्रयुक्त उपसर्ग है ?
1.
चि
2.
चीर
3.
चिर
4.
ची
1.
क्लाति
2.
क्रियाषीलता
3.
आषन्वित
4.
इनमें से कोई नहीं
Ques
11.
निम्नलिखित में से सही शब्द-शुद्धि का चुनाव कीजिए।
1.
तहसीलदारी
2.
तहिसीलदारी
3.
तहषीलदारी
4.
तहीसलदारी
1.
इधर की बात उधर करना
2.
कपट करना
3.
व्यर्थ समय गंवाना
4.
बहाने बनाना
Ques
13.
दिए गए विकल्पों में से अशुद्ध वर्तनी वाले शब्द का चुनाव कीजिए।
1.
उभचुभ
2.
उन्नति
3.
उंचाई
4.
Ques
14.
जो सब कुछ जानता हो।
1.
अज्ञ
2.
सर्वज्ञ
3.
विषेषज्ञ
4.
वाचाल
Ques
15.
जिन वाक्यों में क्रिया का फल कर्ता के अतिरिक्त अन्य किसी पर पडे, वे होते है-
1.
सकर्मक क्रिया युक्त
2.
यौगिक क्रिया युक्त
3.
अकर्मक क्रिया युक्त
4.
Ques
16.
"मैं खाना खा चुका हॅू" इस वाक्य में भूतकालिक भेद इंगित कीजिए-
1.
सामान्य भूतकाल
2.
पूर्ण भूतकाल
3.
आसन्न भूतकाल
4.
संदिग्ध भूतकाल
Ques
17.
"सु" उपसर्ग किस शब्द में हैं ?
1.
सुख
2.
सुप्त
3.
स्वागत
4.
सुंदर
1.
राजीव
2.
कंदर्प
3.
शक्र
4.
वल्लभ
Ques
19.
निम्नलिखित प्रश्न में दिए गए वाक्य में से कुछ में त्रुटि है और कुछ ठीक हैं। त्रुटि वाले वाक्य में जिस भाग में त्रुटि हो, उस भाग का अक्षरांक (अ,ब,स अथवा द) ही आपका उत्तर है। यदि वाक्य में कोई त्रुटि न हो ‘कोई त्रुटि नहीं‘ को उत्तर के रूप के चिन्हित कीजिए।
1.
व्यक्ति के हर प्रकार के कष्टों को
2.
वह पल भर में
3.
दूर करती है।
4.
कोई त्रुटि नही।
Ques
20.
"वह पढाई कर चुका है," वाक्य में कौन-सी क्रिया है ?
1.
सहायक
2.
पूर्वकालिक
3.
नामबोधक
4.
संयुक्त
1.
अनृत
2.
ऋण
3.
एक
4.
उष्ण
Ques
22.
दोपहर के बाद का समय।
1.
विहान
2.
मध्यान्ह
3.
पूर्वान्ह
4.
अपरान्ह
Ques
23.
"नेहा कपडे धोती है," वाक्य में क्रिया है :
1.
अकर्मक
2.
नामबोधक
3.
संयुक्त
4.
सकर्मक
Ques
24.
जब तक वह घर पहुॅचा तब तक उसके पिता जा चुके थे।
1.
सरल वाक्य
2.
संयुक्त वाक्य
3.
मिश्र वाक्य
4.
इनमें से कोई नहीं
1.
यातायात
2.
व्याधात
3.
बिसात
4.
निर्यात
Instruction : 1971 के भारत-पाक युद्ध में समुद्र में जीत हासिल करने में भारतीय नौसेना द्वारा निभाई गई निणार्यक भूमिका की याद में प्रति वर्ष 04दिसंबर को नौसेना दिवस मनाया जाता है | यह एक ऐसा अवसर है जब हम अपने शहीदों को श्रध्दांजलि अर्पित करते हैं तथा अपने सेवानिवृत्त सैनिकों और युद्ध-विधवाओं के बलिदान को याद करते हैं | इस दिन भारतीय नौसेना राष्ट्र की निरंतर सेवा के प्रति अपनी वचनबद्धता और निष्ठा को दोहराती है | भारत की समुद्री शक्ति के प्रमुख उपादान और अभिव्यक्ति के रूप में समुद्री अधिकार-क्षेत्र में राष्ट्रीय सुरक्षा की निगरानी और उसमें बढोत्तरी के लिए भारतीय नौसेना एक अहम भूमिका का निर्वाह करती है अधिकांशत: जनता की नजरों से दूर ‘खामोशी के साथ काम करने वाली इस सेना’ के आकार और क्षमता में स्वतंत्रता-प्राप्ति के बाद वृद्धि हुई है, जो सतत रूप से बढ़ते इसके कार्यक्षेत्र तथा राष्ट्रीय सुरक्षा में इसके बढ़ते महत्व के अनुरूप है | नौसेना की सक्रियात्मक गतिविधियों में तदनुसार संगत विस्तार हुआ है तथा इसमें हिंद महासागरीय क्षेत्र तथा उससे परे के क्षेत्रों का भी समावेश हो गया है | यह जानकर शुख्द अनुभूति होती है कि नौसेना हमारी विस्तृत समुद्री सीमाओं की निरंतर चौकसी कर रही है और उनमे पेश आने वाले खतरों और चुनौतियों का हमेशा तेजी से और पूरी दक्षता के साथ मुकाबला किया है | समुद्री डकैती की रोकथाम, प्राक्रतिक आपदाओं और मानवीय त्रासदी के दौरान तत्काल सहायता उपलब्ध कराने में भारतीय नौसेना की अनवरत प्रतिवद्धता वास्तव में सराहनीय है | मुझे पूरा विश्वास है कि हमारे समर्पित और निष्ठावान नौसेना कार्मिक राष्ट्र द्वारा उन्हें सौंपे गए दायित्वों को पूरा करने के लिए सतत प्रयास करते रहेंगे |(From Ques 26 to Ques 30)
Ques
26.
‘सामना करना’ के लिए अनुच्छेद में आया है:
1.
चौकसी करना
2.
निर्वाह करना
3.
मुकाबला करना
4.
भूमिका निभाना
Ques
27.
‘अहम भूमिका’ से तात्पर्य है:
1.
अहंकार से भरी भूमिका
2.
अभिमान से पूर्ण भूमिका
3.
महत्वपूर्ण भूमिका
4.
अपनी भूमिका
Ques
28.
‘परंपरागत’ से तात्पर्य है:
1.
परंपरा से गए हुए
2.
परंपरा से मिले-जुले
3.
परंपरा से आए हुए
4.
पराए वश में पड़े हुए
Ques
29.
यह जानकर बहुत आनंद प्राप्त होता है कि हमारी नौसेना:
1.
विशाल समुद्री सीमा की चौकसी कर रही है|
2.
विशाल युद्धों में भाग लेती है |
3.
जनता की नजरों से दूर रह कर काम करती है |
4.
विशाल हिंद महासागर में स्थित है |
Ques
30.
‘समावेश’ शब्द में कौन-सी संधि है?
1.
गुण
2.
वृद्धि
3.
अयादि संधि
4.
दीर्घ संधि
Answers are:
Ques
1:
2
Ques
2:
2
Ques
3:
2
Ques
4:
1
Ques
5:
3
Ques
6:
1
Ques
7:
3
Ques
8:
1
Ques
9:
3
Ques
10:
1
Ques
11:
1
Ques
12:
4
Ques
13:
3
Ques
14:
2
Ques
15:
1
Ques
16:
2
Ques
17:
1
Ques
18:
3
Ques
19:
4
Ques
20:
4
Ques
21:
1
Ques
22:
4
Ques
23:
4
Ques
24:
3
Ques
25:
4
Ques
26:
3
Ques
27:
3
Ques
28:
2
Ques
29:
1
Ques
30:
4
Section :
Language II (English)
( Marks :
30.00)
1.
likely to fail
2.
To feel very sad
3.
To act confident in a difficult situation
4.
To commit a fraud
Ques
2.
Find the correctly spelt word.
1.
Skaleton
2.
Sekeleton
3.
Skelaton
4.
Skeleton
Ques
3.
centrally administered by a few companies (A)/ beneficiaries and does not need biometric verification (B)/ LPG usage is mostly urban and is (C)/ through a fully computerised list of (D)/
1.
DABC
2.
CBDA
3.
CADB
4.
BCAD
1.
dreary
2.
dreadful
3.
single-minded
4.
monologue
Ques
5.
Find the correctly spelt word.
1.
Coleegue
2.
Coligue
3.
Colleague
4.
Coleague
Ques
6.
Find the correctly spelt word.
1.
Abandant
2.
Abundant
3.
Abendent
4.
Abundent
Ques
7.
Find the correctly spelt word.
1.
Rejvenation
2.
Rejuenation
3.
Rejevanation
4.
Rejuvenation
Ques
8.
A Hobson’s choice
1.
Something is better than nothing
2.
To give credit to a disagreeable person
3.
The only choice
4.
To sniff something wrong
1.
Abhor
2.
Dignify
3.
Abjure
4.
Vindicate
1.
Choose
2.
Apply
3.
Adjust
4.
Accommodate
Ques
11.
Find the correctly spelt word.
1.
Conscientious
2.
Consentious
3.
Concientious
4.
Conscentious
Ques
12.
Find the correctly spelt word.
1.
Judicious
2.
Juditious
3.
Judiceous
4.
Judecious
Ques
13.
Bend over backwards
1.
To try very hard to do something esp for someone
2.
To keep people at a distance
3.
To interfere in someone’s affairs
4.
To regret in vain that can’t be undone.
Ques
14.
Find the correctly spelt word.
1.
Deficiency
2.
Defficiency
3.
Dificiency
4.
Defeciency
Ques
15.
Find the correctly spelt word.
1.
Repitition
2.
Repetition
3.
Repitetion
4.
Repetetion
1.
Degeneration
2.
Deadlock
3.
Exhaustion
4.
Settlement
Ques
17.
Find the correctly spelt word.
1.
Livelihood
2.
Livelyhood
3.
Livlihood
4.
Livelyhud
Ques
18.
Roshni wanted (A) / to play (B) / with her pet dog and so she started (C) / throwing tantrums. (D) / All correct (E)
1.
wanted
2.
play
3.
started
4.
tantrums
Ques
19.
Find the correctly spelt word.
1.
Heavenly
2.
Heavenlly
3.
Heavanlly
4.
Heavonlly
Ques
20.
He hailed the mission (A)/ as an opportunity to (B)/ bring in “smart” interventions (C)/ to upgrade India’s growing cities (D)
1.
CBDA
2.
BCAD
3.
BDAC
4.
BADC
Ques
21.
Find the correctly spelt word.
1.
Carriege
2.
Carriage
3.
Cerriage
4.
Carraige
1.
Hide
2.
Obey
3.
Excuse
4.
Avoid
Ques
23.
The sight of the accident made my flesh creep.
1.
worried me
2.
frightened me
3.
confused me
4.
drew my attention
Ques
24.
Find the correctly spelt word.
1.
Monnotonus
2.
Monotonus
3.
Monotonous
4.
Monotonas
1.
Mutinous
2.
Intrepid
3.
Intriguing
4.
Timid
Instruction : In India there are about 280m cows. They produce valuable things — milk, dung and calves. But cattle are expensive to keep. The biggest outlay is food — the average cow consumes fodder worth about 10,000 rupees a year.
These expenses are so high that cows are often a poor investment. According to a new and splendidly titled NBER paper, which looks at cow and buffalo ownership in rural areas of northern India, the average return on a cow is –64 per cent once you factor in the cost of labour.
If returns on cattle are so bad, why do households buy them? People may not be thinking about economics, of course. Hindus may derive spiritual fulfillment from cow ownership. Households may prefer to produce high-quality milk at home, even if doing so costs more.
But the authors suggest that there may also be sound economic reasoning behind cow ownership. According to ICRIER, a think-tank, only 7 per cent of Indian villages have a bank branch. That means people lack a formal savings mechanism for their spare cash. And although there are informal ways to save — joining a local savings club, for example, or simply stuffing money under the mattress — owning a cow may be a better option.
That is because most people find spending easier than saving. Immediate pleasures are easier to grasp than future joys — and so people make spending decisions that they later regret. Economists refer to this as “myopia”. Cows force people not to be myopic. Compared with money held in savings accounts, cattle are illiquid assets. Taking cash from a cow is harder than taking money from an account. As a result, temptation spending is trickier.
The paper has implications for poverty-alleviation strategies and for financial services in developing countries. Aid programmes that try to reduce poverty by distributing livestock may be ineffective at raising incomes, if the returns from owning them are so poor. If cows are used as a means of saving, the spread of mobile banking in places like India will provide another, better option. Even then the problem of temptation spending arises. Dean Karlan, one of the authors, is interested in the idea of “commitment savings accounts”, whereby people forgo their right to withdraw funds until they reach a specified level.(From Ques 26 to Ques 30)
Ques
26.
Which of the following is not true in the context of the given passage?
1.
The high expenses to keep cows has become a bad investment.
2.
When the labour cost is also added to the total cost the average return on a cow gives a negative return.
3.
The biggest expense on keeping a cow comes on food.
4.
The NBER paper is concerned with looking at cows and buffalo ownership in the whole of rural India.
Ques
27.
What economic reasoning has the author suggested behind cow ownership?
1.
Rural people prefer to exchange goods for milk.
2.
Cow owners are usually illiterate and hence hesitate to go to bank branches.
3.
People lack a formal savings mechanism and owning a cow is a better alternative for them.
4.
People think it better to have their own cows than to purchase milk from vendors.
Ques
28.
Which of the following statements is/are contrary to the facts mentioned in the given passage?
1.
Getting money by selling cows is much easier than withdrawing it from savings accounts.
2.
Cows force people to be economically shortsighted.
3.
Aid programmes that try to reduce poverty by distributing livestock may be ineffective.
4.
Only A and B
Ques
29.
What is economic myopia? Give your answer in the context of the given passage.
1.
Spending is easier than saving.
2.
Spending gives pleasure while saving causes hardship.
3.
Spending decision for immediate pleasure at the cost of future repentance.
4.
Inability to see objects clearly placed at a short distance.
Ques
30.
Why do households buy cows despite the fact that the return on cattle are not beneficial?
1. To get high-quality milk at home
2. For spiritual fulfillment from cow ownership
3. Because of ignorance of economic aspects
1.
Only 1
2.
Only 2
3.
Only 3
4.
Only 1 and 2
Answers are:
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1:
3
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2:
4
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3:
3
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4:
1
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5:
3
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6:
2
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4
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8:
3
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2
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1
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11:
1
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12:
1
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13:
1
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14:
1
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15:
2
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16:
2
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17:
1
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18:
5
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19:
1
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20:
5
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21:
2
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22:
4
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23:
2
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3
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4
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3
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4
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29:
3
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30:
5
Section :
Mathematics
( Marks :
30.00)
Ques
1.
The banker's discount on a sum of money for 3/2 years is Rs. 558 and the true discount on the same sum for 2 years is Rs. 600. The rate percent is:
1.
10%
2.
13%
3.
12%
4.
15%
Ques
2.
How many times are the hands of a clock at right angle in a day?
Ques
3.
A man on tour travels first 160 km at 64 km/hr and the next 160 km at 80 km/hr. The average speed for the first 320 km of the tour is
1.
71.11 km/hr
2.
36 Km/hr
3.
71 Km/hr
4.
36.33 Km/hr
Ques
4.
A trader sells his goods at a discount 20%. He still makes a profit of 25%. If he sells the goods at the marked price only, his profit will be:
1.
56.25%
2.
25.56%
3.
50.25%
4.
54.25%
Ques
5.
The length of a rectangle is halved, while its breadth is tripled. What is the percentage change in area?
1.
25% increase
2.
50% increase
3.
50% decrease
4.
5% decrease
Ques
6.
A reduction of 10% in the price of tea enables a dealer to purchase 25 kg more tea for ₹ 22500. What is the reduced price per kg of tea?
1.
₹ 70
2.
₹ 80
3.
₹ 90
4.
₹ 100
Ques
7.
The sum of ages of 5 children born at the intervals of 3 years each is 50 years. What is the age of the youngest child?
1.
4 years
2.
8 years
3.
10 years
4.
None of these
Ques
8.
At a game of billiards, A can give B 15 points in 60 and A can give C to 20 points in 60. How many points can B give C in a game of 90?
1.
30 points
2.
20 points
3.
10 points
4.
12 points
Ques
9.
A person having bought goods for Rs. 400 sells half of it at a gain of 5%, at what gain % must he sell the remainder so as to gain 20% on the whole?
1.
30%
2.
32%
3.
34%
4.
35%
Ques
10.
If the price of the commodity is increased by 50% by what fraction must its consumption be reduced so as to keep the same expenditure on its consumption?
1.
4-Jan
2.
3-Jan
3.
2-Jan
4.
3-Feb
Ques
11.
One card is drawn at random from a pack of 52 cards. What is the probability that the card drawn is a face card (Jack, Queen and King only)?
1.
(1/13)
2.
(3/13)
3.
(1/4)
4.
(9/52)
Ques
12.
How many days will there be from 26th January 2004, to 15th May 2004?
1.
110
2.
111
3.
112
4.
113
Ques
13.
Look at this series: 2, 1, (1/2), (1/4), ... What number should come next?
1.
(1/3)
2.
(1/8)
3.
(2/8)
4.
(1/16)
Ques
14.
If A's salary is 25% more than B's salary, then B's salary is how much lower than A's salary?
1.
33(1/3)%
2.
25%
3.
20%
4.
16(2/3)%
Ques
15.
The rational number for recurring decimal 0.125125.... is:
1.
63/487
2.
119/993
3.
125/999
4.
159/993
Ques
16.
8, 27, 64, 100, 125, 216, 343
1.
27
2.
100
3.
125
4.
343
Ques
17.
If the area of a circle is 75.44 square cm then what is the circumference of the circle?
1.
40.2 cm
2.
28.9 cm
3.
29.2 cm
4.
30.8 cm
Ques
18.
Find the number of triangles which can be formed by joining the angular points of a polygon of 8 sides as vertices.
Ques
19.
A boat running downstream covers a distance of 16 km in 2 hours while for covering the same distance upstream, it takes 4 hours. What is the speed of the boat in still water?
1.
4 km/hr
2.
6 km/hr
3.
8 km/hr
4.
Data inadequate
Ques
20.
Robert is travelling on his cycle and has calculated to reach point A at 2 P.M. if he travels at 10 kmph, he will reach there at 12 noon if he travels at 15 kmph. At what speed must he travel to reach A at 1 P.M.?
1.
8 Kmph
2.
11 kmph
3.
12 Kmph
4.
14 kmph
Ques
21.
There are two examinations rooms A and B. If 10 students are sent from A to B, then the number of students in each room is the same. If 20 candidates are sent from B to A, then the number of students in A is double the number of students in B. The number of students in room A is:
1.
20
2.
80
3.
100
4.
200
Ques
22.
A college has raised 75% of the amount it needs for a new building by receiving an average donation of Rs. 600 from the people already solicited. The people already solicited represent 60% of the people, the college will ask for donations. If the college is to raise exactly the amount needed for the new building, what should be the average donation from the remaining people be solicited?
1.
300
2.
250
3.
400
4.
500
Ques
23.
Two persons A and B get the same salary. Their basic pays are different. Their allowances are 65% and 80% of their basic pays respectively. What is the ratio of their basic pays ?
1.
7:05
2.
17:15
3.
11:10
4.
12:11
Ques
24.
A report consists of 20 sheets each of 55 lines and each such line consist of 65 characters. This report is reduced onto sheets each of 65 lines such that each line consists of 70 characters. The percentage reduction in number of sheets is closer to
1.
20%
2.
5%
3.
30%
4.
35%
Ques
25.
The present ages of three persons in proportions 4 : 7 : 9. Eight years ago, the sum of their ages was 56. Find their present ages (in years).
1.
8, 20, 28
2.
16, 28, 36
3.
20, 35, 45
4.
None of these
Ques
26.
A watch costing Rs. 120 was sold at a loss of 15%. At what price was it sold?
1.
Rs. 112
2.
Rs.102
3.
Rs. 135
4.
Rs. 110
Ques
27.
A can run 22.5 m while B runs 25 m. In a kilometre race B beats A by:
1.
100 m
2.
25 m
3.
50 m
4.
101m
Ques
28.
The curved surface area of a cylindrical pillar is 264 m2 and its volume is 924 m3. Find the ratio of its diameter to its height.
1.
3 : 7
2.
7 : 3
3.
6 : 7
4.
7 : 6
Ques
29.
A train passes a station platform in 36 seconds and a man standing on the platform in 20 seconds. If the speed of the train is 54 km/hr, what is the length of the platform?
1.
300 Meter
2.
240 Meter
3.
200 Meter
4.
None of these
Ques
30.
The value of [(10)150 ÷ (10)146]
1.
1000
2.
10000
3.
100000
4.
10000000
Answers are:
Ques
1:
3
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2:
3
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3:
1
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4:
1
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5:
2
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6:
3
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7:
1
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8:
3
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9:
4
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10:
2
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11:
2
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12:
2
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13:
2
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14:
3
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15:
3
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16:
2
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17:
4
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18:
1
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19:
2
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20:
3
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21:
3
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22:
1
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23:
4
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24:
1
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2
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26:
2
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27:
1
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2
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29:
2
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30:
2
Section :
Environmental Studies
( Marks :
30.00)
Ques
1.
Environmental protection is the responsibility of
1.
Individuals
2.
NGO's
3.
Government of India
4.
All of the above
Ques
2.
Bhopal Gas Tragedy happened in the year
1.
Dec. 1983
2.
Dec. 1984
3.
Dec. 1987
4.
Dec. 1994
Ques
3.
Which of the following is not a Natural mineral?
1.
Nitrogen
2.
Asbestos
3.
Limestone
4.
Fluorospar
Ques
4.
Which part of plant contains nitrogen fixing bacteria?
1.
Roots
2.
Stems
3.
Leaves
4.
All the above
Ques
5.
Liquefied petroleum gas is a mixture of
1.
Propane and butane
2.
Methane and propane
3.
Methane and butane
4.
Methane and ethane
Ques
6.
The adverse effect of modern agriculture is
1.
Soil pollution
2.
Water pollution
3.
Wastes logging
4.
All of these
Ques
7.
The term 'Refuse' generally does not include is
1.
Ashes
2.
Excreta
3.
Putrescible solid waste
4.
Non putrescible solid waste
Ques
8.
The natural disastrous events like volcanoes, earthquakes, cyclones, bring about environmental changes which are
1.
Reversible
2.
Irreversible
3.
Both (a) and (b)
4.
None of these
Ques
9.
The air pollutant which causes severs damage to plants, even at much lower concentrations than what may be harmful to human health is
1.
Peroxyacyl nitrates (PAN)
2.
Ozone
3.
Fluorine
4.
None of these
Ques
10.
Social security is one of the most important programmes providing benefits to
1.
Un-employee
2.
Worker/employee
3.
Families of deceased
4.
All of the above
Ques
11.
An ecosystem is a region in which
1.
Dead organism interact with their environment
2.
Living organism interact with their environment
3.
Living organism do not interact with their environment
4.
All of the above
Ques
12.
Which of the following is not a Green House Gas?
1.
Ozone
2.
Water vapour
3.
Carbon dioxide
4.
Sulpher dioxide
1.
Rich in nutrients
2.
Treatment of water
3.
End point of the river
4.
Meeting place of river and sea
Ques
14.
The science that deals with the relationship of various organisms with their environment is known as
1.
anthropology
2.
economics
3.
ecology
4.
geology
Ques
15.
How many muscles are there in a human body?
1.
600
2.
700
3.
800
4.
900
Ques
16.
Which of the following is a natural source of environmental pollution?
1.
Earthquake
2.
Automobiles
3.
Industries
4.
Sewage
Ques
17.
The ozone depletion in the stratosphere is chiefly caused by the release of
1.
Chlorofluoro carbons
2.
Carbon dioxide
3.
Methane
4.
None of these
Ques
18.
Important sources of land pollution are
1.
Industrial Wastes
2.
Agricultural Wastes
3.
Both (a) and (b)
4.
None of the above
Ques
19.
Sulabh biogas plants are based on the use of
1.
Cattle dung
2.
Human excreta
3.
Agriculture waste
4.
None of these
Ques
20.
Acid rains are more prominent in
1.
Arid regions
2.
Tropical regions
3.
Temperate regions
4.
Equally prominent in all
Ques
21.
The environment act was enacted by Indian parliament under Article 253 of the constitution of India and made applicable to all states of India in the year
1.
1984
2.
1985
3.
1986
4.
1987
Ques
22.
Water quality involves measuring the number of colonies of
1.
Cells
2.
Protozoa
3.
Chromozomes
4.
Coliform bacteria
Ques
23.
Ozone is present in which layers of the atmosphere?
1.
Stratosphere
2.
Mesosphere
3.
Troposphere
4.
Thermosphere
Ques
24.
Which of the following components of the environment are effective transporters of matter?
1.
Atmosphere and lithosphere
2.
Atmosphere and hydrosphere
3.
Lithosphere and thermosphere
4.
Hydrosphere and lithosphere
Ques
25.
The two major components of ecosystem are
1.
Abiotic and biotic
2.
Cyclic and biologic
3.
Adiabatic and isotropic
4.
Ecologic and climatologic
Ques
26.
We have days and nights because of:
1.
Earth’s rotation
2.
Earth’s revolution
3.
Sun’s rotation
4.
Sun’s revolution
Ques
27.
What is the maximum allowable concentration of fluorides in drinking water
1.
1.5 mg/L
2.
2.0 mg/L
3.
2.5 mg/L
4.
3.0 mg/L
Ques
28.
Sustainability requires
1.
Conservations of resources
2.
Minimizing depletion of non-renewable sources
3.
Using sustainable practices for managing renewable resources
4.
All the above
Ques
29.
Global atmospheric temperatures are likely to be increased due to
1.
Burning of fossil fuels
2.
Water pollution
3.
Soil erosion
4.
None of the above
Ques
30.
A major carbon storage reservoir in the carbon cycle is
1.
Trees
2.
Rivers
3.
Oceans
4.
Atmosphere
Answers are:
Ques
1:
4
Ques
2:
2
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3:
1
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4:
1
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5:
1
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6:
4
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7:
1
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8:
3
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9:
1
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10:
4
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11:
2
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12:
4
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13:
4
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14:
3
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15:
1
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16:
1
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17:
1
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18:
3
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19:
1
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20:
1
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21:
3
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22:
2
Ques
23:
1
Ques
24:
4
Ques
25:
1
Ques
26:
1
Ques
27:
1
Ques
28:
4
Ques
29:
1
Ques
30:
1
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